I don’t know how it works in 5e but in earlier editions when a lich rejuvenated it wasn’t technically the same body. So if a lich x was lich y’s phylactery, and lich x was destroyed, lich y would be without a phylactery even after lich x rejuvenated
No the carvings would not still be there, a copy of the carvings would be made, but just duplicating some carved tunes does not generally replicate a magic effect in D&D, the runes generally have some process to imbue them with the magical energy
Like a blacksmith can duplicate a magic sword precisely in its construction but that sword will not be a magic sword, that’s just generally how magic works in D&D, some magic person needs to do some extra magic bullshit to the thing to make it a Magic Thing
Well if 5e liches are just the same body then you don’t have to worry about phylacteries at all, just deposit the fucker in molten lead after you “kill” him then
Rejuvenation: If it has a phylactery, a destroyed lich gains a new body in 1d10 days, regaining all its hit points and becoming active again. The new body appears within 5 feet of the phylactery. okay so
Like I said generally that’s not the convention for magic items in D&D, and the phylactery is basically a kind of magic item. If the DM pulls this trick with a pair of liches than they can expect players to want to turn any suit of non magic armor into +3 armor just by copying the same runes they found on some magic armor
but seriously, if a player said to me "WELL by all rights if a LICH rejuvenating keeps a phylactory active EVEN THOUGH they wouldn't be the ORIGINAL RUNES, then by ALL RIGHTS I should be able to copy ANY magical runes to recreate any magical item I want"
Rejuvenation: If it has a phylactery, a destroyed lich gains a new body in 1d10 days, regaining all its hit points and becoming active again. The new body appears within 5 feet of the phylactery.
okay so